Thanks a heap for this Moodz. It starts to get to the questions I have been hoping to answer.
So my interpretation:
(1)The initial undershoot is not so much a target feature is a control artifact (no criticism, its a fast circuit and I am amazed it settles that quickly) to get the circuit to a "critical damping" point. I think you said before that you "release" near that point.
This is the quick and dirty circuit ... It can be made to be near perfect.
(2) In the trace with no target, there is still a tiny bit of current in the coil so from t= +2uS, we see a (small) exponential decay of the type we would expect from an undamped inductive decay. You can see its a little noisy.
This is a mono coil. It is a "self target" as well. .. There will always be some residual energy from the self target and parasitic caps. For noise just substitute "radio antenna" for coil.
OK so now I think I see and can explain the target response (maybe).
(3) With the Fe target in range. We pull out the electrical energy and the "eddy current" response now manifests as a higher and larger decay current starting at t=+2uS. If you could remove more undershoot I could imagine Carl's impulse blip.
It's a non- fe target .... I don't bother with fe targets.
What still doesn't jive is that this is a large Fe target. If the theory was right its time coinstant should be large and I would have expected its peak would have bee more to the right.
See above
HOWEVER now we see some use in simulation as if you look at my simulation above you can see that the nice symmetrical current pulse gets skewed to a long trailing tail if there is no damping resistor.
BUT what still does not sit is that this target presumably (by the theory) would have a time constant more than shown or am I wrong?
OPEN is that if we could drop the flyback time more, would we see more of an impulse (t.e^)-t/tau) signal per Carl. It appears that t=0 is the FET turn off point/ start or coil current decay.
Moodz, thanks a heap for taking the time to put this together. Its getting closer to answers (well at least for me- maybe the gurus know this already).
How do others interpret Moodz waveforms vs the theory? Do I have it right?
My 2 cents is that you just concentrate on damping ASAP without sapping target energy an don't worry about target tau as there are very complex surface current and bulk magnetic effects that are almost impossible to model. Eg take 10 grams of gold and form it into a ring, a rod, a disc, a sheet, a wire, a random blob etc etc ect ad infinitum ...... They will all have diff target responses but still just 10 grams of gold.
Moodz
So my interpretation:
(1)The initial undershoot is not so much a target feature is a control artifact (no criticism, its a fast circuit and I am amazed it settles that quickly) to get the circuit to a "critical damping" point. I think you said before that you "release" near that point.
This is the quick and dirty circuit ... It can be made to be near perfect.

(2) In the trace with no target, there is still a tiny bit of current in the coil so from t= +2uS, we see a (small) exponential decay of the type we would expect from an undamped inductive decay. You can see its a little noisy.
This is a mono coil. It is a "self target" as well. .. There will always be some residual energy from the self target and parasitic caps. For noise just substitute "radio antenna" for coil.

OK so now I think I see and can explain the target response (maybe).
(3) With the Fe target in range. We pull out the electrical energy and the "eddy current" response now manifests as a higher and larger decay current starting at t=+2uS. If you could remove more undershoot I could imagine Carl's impulse blip.
It's a non- fe target .... I don't bother with fe targets.

What still doesn't jive is that this is a large Fe target. If the theory was right its time coinstant should be large and I would have expected its peak would have bee more to the right.
See above

HOWEVER now we see some use in simulation as if you look at my simulation above you can see that the nice symmetrical current pulse gets skewed to a long trailing tail if there is no damping resistor.
BUT what still does not sit is that this target presumably (by the theory) would have a time constant more than shown or am I wrong?
OPEN is that if we could drop the flyback time more, would we see more of an impulse (t.e^)-t/tau) signal per Carl. It appears that t=0 is the FET turn off point/ start or coil current decay.
Moodz, thanks a heap for taking the time to put this together. Its getting closer to answers (well at least for me- maybe the gurus know this already).
How do others interpret Moodz waveforms vs the theory? Do I have it right?
My 2 cents is that you just concentrate on damping ASAP without sapping target energy an don't worry about target tau as there are very complex surface current and bulk magnetic effects that are almost impossible to model. Eg take 10 grams of gold and form it into a ring, a rod, a disc, a sheet, a wire, a random blob etc etc ect ad infinitum ...... They will all have diff target responses but still just 10 grams of gold.
Moodz
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