I am an analog guy with few decades under my belt, but, coils and magnetism are not my strong point. Therefore, I would like a little coaching in a coil project of mine. When designing a (large) co-planar coil to a given inductance, I assume (oops) that the buck, being wound in a counter-TX coil fashion, is going to impact the effective inductance of the TX windings. Is it correct to assume that TX coil inductance will be altered by the buck windings' inductance in a linear fashion? For example, if I want 3.3mH and need some of that to be buck windings to cancel field at the RX - does the buck inductance just subtract from the inductance of the outer TX windings for a total inductance of something less than the outer windings? In doing the calculation of a proper buck winding for a given TX winding and just adding a "proper" amount of buck windings, the thought occurs to me that the TX winding inductance will now be reduced and so I must add some more windings - Then I need a touch more buck because of the added windings - then I affected my TX inductance a smidge and so on, ad nauseum..
If this is so, then there must be some successive approximation process whereby one can reach a final value of 3.3mH with proper cancellation for the RX coil. That having been said, is there a handy formula or calculator for this process? Or, and this may be a perfectly valid answer, do I have an invalid assumption and no freakin' idea of what to do? 



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