Okay, I've had enough of Google. Suppose I have a single supply op amp with a pot div biasing the no inv input.
Now the usual R from o/p to inv input.
The 'other' resistor to ov via a largish cap. What does this achieve ?
I thought the idea was to remove a dc at the o/p but now I think the o/p will be same as biasV....
...but then the non inve input has 0v so the op will be zero as the opamp tries to make the pos input the same ????
Yeah I should know. But I don't.
Thanks

Now the usual R from o/p to inv input.
The 'other' resistor to ov via a largish cap. What does this achieve ?
I thought the idea was to remove a dc at the o/p but now I think the o/p will be same as biasV....
...but then the non inve input has 0v so the op will be zero as the opamp tries to make the pos input the same ????
Yeah I should know. But I don't.
Thanks



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