Why? For the simple reason of slew rate. For this reason, input bias current become important. The rail voltages are a secondary consideration.
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[HELP] asymmetric output op amp
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Originally posted by dbanner View PostWhy? For the simple reason of slew rate. For this reason, input bias current become important. The rail voltages are a secondary consideration.
I suspect it has something to do with 4066, later I will not use 4066, I will report the results again
Regard,
Wahyu
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Originally posted by rickb View PostWahyu
do you have + and - power connected to the 4066's? You don't show it.Originally posted by waltr View PostAlso try removing the 4066 then measure 5534 output.Originally posted by dbanner View PostHave a look at the goldscan 5 schematic. Pretty straightforward. Like I said, input bias and slew go hand in hand.this is my mistake, I don't use +5V and -5V on cd4066 ,
Thank for rickb, waltr, dbanner, green, moodz and KT315
SOLVE
Regard,
Wahyu
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schematic
Different supply 4093 and 4066, swing clipping,
After 4093 and 4066 supply with +5V / -5V
SOLVED,
Thanks All,
Regard,
Wahyu
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